Dpt 4th Sem Industrial Management & Entrepreneurship Mcq notes

                CENTRAL INSTITUTE OF PLASTICS ENGINEERING & TECHNOLOGY

                                                     Question Bank

1 MARK—QUESTION

2 MARK ---QUESTION

3 MARK --- QUESTION

4/5 MARK ----QUESTION

COURSE : DPT

SEMESTER : IV

SUBJECT : Industrial Management & Entrepreneurship

                                                    ------

Unit – I

1. Management is:

 A] The science of polymer product

 B] An art of getting things done

 C] Commerce of making profit

 D] None of the above

 Ans. B] An art of getting things done

2. What are the traits of a good manager?

 A] Treating subordinates as slave

 B] Planning, Organising & Controlling

 C] Sitting idle

 D] All the above

 Ans. B] Planning, Organising & Controlling

3. Strike the odd one out:

A] Management is a process

B] Management is a game

C] Management is an activity

D] Management is a discipline

Ans. B] Management is a game

4. ‘Planning’ is the ___________ function of management

 A] primary B] secondary C] auxiliary D] none of the above

 Ans. A] primary

5. Management is a __________ process

 A] intermittent B] continuous C] continual D] none of the above

 Ans. B] continuous

6. Which one is not a recognised key skill of management?

 A] Conceptual skills B] Human skills C] Technical skills D] Writing skills

 Ans. D] Writing skills

7. __________ Management is the process of reaching organisational goals by working with and

through people and other organisational resources.


 A] Financial B] Environmental C] Industrial D] none of the above

 Ans. C] Industrial

8. Administration focuses on making the best utilisation of the organisational _________.

 A] Talent B] Resources C] Finances D] none of the above

 Ans. A] Resources

9. Who is considered to be the “Father of Scientific Management”?

 A] Henry Fayol B] F.W. Taylor


 C] Ross Moore D] Koontz & O’Donnel

 Ans. B] F.W. Taylor

10. What is the main objective of Scientific Management?

A] To train people and prepare scientists

B] To invent new technologies

C] To improve the economic efficiency of an organisation

D] To manage plastic waste

Ans. C] To improve the economic efficiency of an organisation

11. Administration falls under which level of Management?

 A] Top Level B] Middle Level C] Lower Level D] None of the above

 Ans. A] Top Level

12. Which one of the following is the next stage to the Concept Stage of Product Planning and

Development Process?

A] Idea Stage B] Product Planning Stage

C] Product Development Stage D] Test Marketing Stage

 Ans. C] Product Development Stage

13. _________ involves selecting and placing the right person at the right position.

 A] Outsourcing B] Staffing C] Management D] None of the above

 Ans. B] Staffing

14. From the below, which is not a function of Management?

 A] Planning B] Manufacturing


 C] Organising D] Decision Making

 Ans. B] Manufacturing

15. Which of the following is “determining in advance, what should be done in future”?

 A] Staffing B] Directing C] Planning D] All the above

 Ans. C] Planning

16. Which of the following is “a conscious co-ordination of people towards a desired goal”?

 A] Leading B] Motivating


 C] Organising D] Forecasting

 Ans. C] Organising


17. _______ is concerned with choosing the best course of action from among the alternatives.

 A] Controlling B] Innovating C] Leading D] None of the above

 Ans. A] Controlling

18. What are the different types of organisational structure?

 A] Line Organisation B] Line & Staff Organisation

 C] Functional Organisation D] All of the above

 Ans. D] All of the above

19. Facial expression is a form of ______ communication

 A] sign B] oral C] verbal D] None of the above

 Ans. C] Verbal

20. What does the letter “R” in HRM mean –

 A] Race B] Resonance C] Resource D] Relation

 Ans. C] Resource

21. Carrot & Stick Approach is one of the ___________ theories of management?

 A] motivational B] chaos C] contingency D] None of the above

 Ans. A] motivational


22. ‘Physiological needs’ have to be satisfied before meeting the ‘Social’ & ‘Safety’ needs of a person

in order to be motivated as per __________ theory of Motivation.

 A] Deming’s B] Maslow’s C] Juran’s D] None of the above

 Ans. B] Maslow’s

23. It deals with the calculation of manpower requirements in future considering various factors like

internal and external economies, social and political pressure, organisational policies, suitability of

the manpower requirements etc. What is it?

 A] Industrial Psychology B] Entrepreneur C] Manpower planning D] JIT

 Ans. C] Manpower planning

24. A job displaying the information regarding the responsibilities, skills or training required, working

conditions, type of person required, qualification required etc. is known as –

 A] Job Analysis B] Job Description

 C] Job Specialisation D] Job Evaluation

 Ans. B] Job Description

25. Performance Appraisal is –

 A] The process of de-motivating an employee

 B] The process of measuring and evaluating an employee’s behaviour and performance.


 C] The process of demotion of an employee


 D] None of the above

 Ans. B] process of measuring and evaluating an employee’s behaviour and performance.

26. Which of the following is the method of training?

 A] Demonstration B] Lectures C] Conferences/Seminar D] All of the above

 Ans. D] All of the above

27. A systematic evaluation of an employee’s performance on the job in terms of requirements of the

job is known as –

 A] Job Evaluation B] Job Satisfaction C] Merit Rating D] Merit Ranking

 Ans. C] Merit Rating


28. Contingency theory, Chaos theory and Systems theory are popular __________ theories.

 A] Training B] Administration C] Management D] None of the above

 Ans. C] Management

Unit – II

29. Which of the following inventory techniques uses cards to monitor inventory movement?

A] ABC Analysis B] JIT Approach C] Kanban D] Kaizen


 Ans. C] Kanban


30. The objective of ISO-9000 family of Quality management is –

 A] Customer Satisfaction B] Environmental Issues

 C] Employee Satisfaction D] Skill Enhancement

 Ans. A] Customer Satisfaction

31. TQM stands for –

 A] Taste Quality Manufacturing B] Total Quality Management

 C] Total Quantity Management D] None of the above

 Ans. B] Total Quality Management

32. TQM focuses on –

 A] Employee B] Customer

 C] Both A] & B] D] None of the above

 Ans. C] Both A] & B]


33. Which of the following is responsible for quality objective?

 A] Top level management B] Middle level management

 C] Lower level management D] All of the above

 Ans. A] Top level management



34. TQM & ISO both focuses on –

 A] Customer B] Employee C] Supplier D] Entrepreneur

 Ans. A] Customer

35. While setting quality objectives, _____________ is (are) required to be considered.

 A] Material Quality B] Customer Needs

 C] Market Demand D] All of the above

 Ans. B] Customer Needs

36. TQM promotes _____________ participation.

 A] employee B] inspector C] customer D] None of the above


 Ans. A] Employee

37. Third party quality audit is also known as __________.

 A] Internal B] Eternal C] Extrinsic D] None of these


 Ans. C] Extrinsic

38. Which among the following is a pull type signalling system?

A] Just in time B] Kanban C] both A] and B] D]none of the above

 Ans. C] both A] and B]

39. Which of the following ISO certificate is for Environmental Management?

 A] ISO – 9000 B] ISO – 14000 C] ISO - 26000 D] ISO - 310000

 Ans. B] ISO – 14000

40. Brainstorming involves ____

 A] One person B] Two persons C] Team D] None of these


 Ans. C] Team

41. The process of developing ideas by a team of people on a specific topic and collectively seeking

the solution of a problem is known as ___________

 A] Group Discussion B] Team Meeting C] Brain Storming D] Group Study

 Ans. C] Brain Storming

42. Quality circle can solve problems related to –

 A] Cost Cutting B] Continuous improvement in the work areas

 C] Delay in production D] All of the above

 Ans. B] Continuous improvement in the work areas

43. _______________ is the Japanese term for error-proofing.

 A] KANBAN B] KAIZEN C] POKA-YOKE D] All of the above

 Ans. C] POKA-YOKE

44. In ISO, the focus is on –

 A] Enhancing customer satisfaction B] Satisfying customers


 C] Delighting customers D] All of the above

 Ans. D] All of the above

45. Which of the following is (are) part of 5s principles of TQM?

 A] Shitsuke – Sustain B] Seiton – Orderliness


 C] Seiso – Cleanliness D] All of the above

 Ans. D] All of the above

Unit – III

46. MRP stands for -

 A] Minimum Retail Price B] Material Requirement Planning

 C] Manufacture Resource Point D] None of the above

 Ans. B] Material Requirement Planning

47. _________________is the scientific technique for planning the order and usage of materials at

various levels of production and for monitoring the stocks during their transactions.

 A] MPS B] MRP


 C] BOM D] None of the above

 Ans. B] MRP

48. An MRP system is intended to meet which of the following objectives:

 A] Ensuring availability of materials for production and product availability for delivery to

customers.


B] Maintain the lowest possible material and product levels in store


 C] Both A] & B]


 D] None of the above

 Ans. C] Both A] & B]

49. The list of quantities of components, ingredients, and materials required to produce a product is

the

 A] Purchase order. B] Master schedule

 C] bill-of-materials D] engineering change notice

 Ans. C] bill-of-materials

50. A lot-sizing technique that generates exactly what was required to meet the plan is

 A] Economic order quantity B] part period balancing

 C] lot-for-lot D] None of the above

 Ans. C] lot-for-lot


51. Which of these pieces of information is NOT contained in a bill of material?

 A] Physical dimensions B] lead times

 C] Raw materials to be used D] quantities of components

 Ans. B] lead times

52. What is meant by Kaizen?

A] card signal B] to avoid inadvertent errors

C] change for better quality D] none of the above

 Ans. C] change for better quality

53. Which one of the following items is not part of the fundamental JIT concept?

 A] Right quantities B] Right time

 C] Right customer D] Right components

 Ans. C] Right customer

54. Which of the following statements about Just-in-Time is correct?

 A] JIT seeks to reduce inventory in an effort to reduce waste.


 B] JIT is only useful in a high product variety environment


 C] JIT will overcome poor component manufacture.


 D] JIT pushes inventory through the operations process

 Ans. A] JIT seeks to reduce inventory in an effort to reduce waste.

55. JIT stands for ___________

 A] Joined in Time B] Just in Time C] Job in time D] None of the above


 Ans. B] Just in Time

56. Just-in-Time production implies:

 A] A wide range of suppliers will be needed to meet increased demand

 B] That products will be pulled through the operations system to meet customer demand.

 C] Large batches of similar products will need to be manufactured to increase efficiency

 D] An increase in total inventory to cater for the likelihood of more frequent stock-outs

 Ans. B] That products will be pulled through the operations system to meet customer

demand.

57. Which of the following is NOT a JIT method planning and control?

 A] Total people involvement B] Pull scheduling

 C] Synchronisation D] Kanban control

 Ans. A] Total people involvement

58. Which one of the following would NOT be considered a prerequisite for successful Just-in-Time

production?

 A] Low variety of product range


 B] Sophisticated production and materials planning computer systems


 C] Preventive maintenance of equipment


 D] Reliable deliveries of defect-free materials

 Ans. B] Sophisticated production and materials planning computer systems

59. The information input into MRP systems comes from ____________sources?

 A] A bill of material B] a master schedule

 C] Both A] & B] D] None of the above

 Ans. C] Both A] & B]

60. The two outputs of _________ are ‘Recommended Production Schedule’ & ‘Recommended

Purchasing Schedule’.

 A] MRP B] JIT C] BOM D] None of the above


 Ans. A] MRP

61. The basic functions of an MRP system include –

 A] Inventory Control B] Bill of material processing


 C] Elementary Scheduling D] All of the above

 Ans. D] All of the above

62. MRP uses the _________ to determine the quantity of each component that is needed to produce

a certain number of finished products.

 A] production rate B] bill of materials C] purchase time D] None of the above

 Ans. B] bill of materials

Unit - IV:

63. ’’The purpose or reason for the organization’s existence” is called –

 A] Mission B] Vision C] Objective D] Goal

 Ans. A] Mission

64. The letter “O” in SWOT Analysis stands for ‘Options’

 A] Opportunities B] Options C] Opinion D] None of the above

 Ans. A] Opportunities

65. What does ‘’T” stand for in SWOT analysis?

 A] Technology B] Time C] Threats D] Team

 Ans. C] Threats

66. TQM stands for –

A] Total Quality Management,

B] Top Quality Management,

C] Technology Quality Management,

D] Total Quantity Management.

 Ans. A] Total Quality Management

67. What is the aim of fool proofing technique used for total quality management?

A] to achieve zero defects B] to specify time schedules


C] to specify targets D] none of the above

 Ans. A] to achieve zero defects

68. A good working environment is reflected in –

 A] Low rate of absenteeism of workers,

 B] Harmony in work place,

 C] Motivated workers,

 D] All of the above.

 Ans. D] All of the above.

69. Which of the following statements concerning grapevine is not correct?

A] Grapevine is generally used irregularly in organizations

B] Grapevine can and often does generate harmful rumors

C] Some managers use grapevine to their advantage

D] In time, and with proper pressure, grapevine can be eliminated.

 Ans. D] In time, and with proper pressure, grapevine can be eliminated.

70. The conflict-resolution approach that corresponds with a high level of assertiveness and a low

level of cooperativeness, is referred to as

 A] Compromising B] Collaborating C] Forcing D] Avoiding

Ans. C] Forcing

71. Physical working condition is related to which need of motivation given by Maslow’s Need

 theory –


 A] Safety B] Social C] Esteem D] None of the above

 Ans. D] None of the above

72. TQM technique includes –

 A] Quality consciousness, B] Better methods of production,

 C] Better utilization of resources D] All of the above.

 Ans. D] All of the above.

73. TQM focuses on _______________.

 A] supplier & customer B] employee & customer


C] supplier & employee D] None of the above

 Ans. B] employee & customer

74. Which one of the following is a component of small scale industries?

 A] Modern small scale industries B] Ancillary industries

 C] Cottage industries D] All of the above

 Ans. D] All of the above

75. Body of individual should consist of:

A] Individual only B] Persons other than individual only

C] Both the above D] none of the above

 Ans. A] Individual only

76. What is the Financial Year (FY) of India?

 A] 1st Jan – 31st Dec B] 1st July – 30th June

 C] 1st April – 31st March D] None of the above

 Ans. C] 1st April – 31st March


77. Agricultural income is ______

A] Fully exempt from Income-tax B] Partially exempt from Income-tax

C] Fully taxable D] None of the above

Ans. A] Fully exempt from Income-tax

78. For the purpose of charging income tax and computation of total income of an ‘assessee’, Income

has been classified into –

 A] 4 heads B] 6 heads C] 7 heads D] 5 heads

 Ans. D] 5 heads

79. A new business was set up on 15-11-2016 and it commenced its business from 01-12-2016.

The first previous year for income tax purpose in this case shall be :

 A] 15-11-2016 to 31-03-2017 B] 01-12-2016 to 31-03-2017

 C] 01-04-2016 to 31-03-2017 D] 01-01-2016 to 31-12-2017

 Ans. A] 15-11-2016 to 31-03-2017

80. ‘Residential status’ for the tax filing purposes of an assessee needs to be determined for the:

 A] Previous year B] Assessment year

 C] Accounting year D] Calendar year

 Ans. A] Previous year

81. Central Excise Duty is levied and collected by –

 A] Central Government B] State Government

 C] Local authorities D] All of the above

 Ans. A] Central Government


82. Excise Duty is levied on ______________ in India.

A] ‘production/manufacture of goods for sale’

B] ‘production/manufacture of goods for internal use’

C] ‘production/manufacture of goods for export’

D] None of the above

Ans. A] production/manufacture of goods for sale’

83. In which year did Income Tax came into effect?

 A] 1961 B] 1956 C] 1944 D] 1987

 Ans. A] 1961

84. What is the tax rate for income slab under Rs.5,00,000 to Rs.10,00,000 for the FY 2016-17?

 A] 10% B] 20% C] 30% D] 40%

 Ans. B] 20%

Unit - V:

85. The four accident prevention techniques are called –

A] 4 P’S B] 4 G’S C] 4 M’S D] 4 E’S

 Ans. D] 4 E’S

86. Improper recruitment, selection and placement in industries is a _________cause of accident.

 A] environmental B] technical C] personnel D] None of the above

 Ans. C] personnel

87. The National Safety Council was set up in –

 A] May 1966 B] March 1966 C] May 1976 D] March 1976

 Ans. B] March 1966

88. The reasons for a number of accidents in our country is comparatively higher than many other

industrially advanced countries are –

 A] Manual operations in production process,

 B] Insufficient voluntary efforts on the part of management,

 C] Lower economic and educational status of our workers,

 D] All of the above.

 Ans. D] All of the above.

89. OSHA stands for ________.

 A] Occupational Safety and Health Association


 B] Overall Safety and Health Association


 C] Occupational Safety and Health Administration


 D] None of the above

 Ans. C] Occupational Safety and Health Administration

90. The causes of accidents in industries relates to –

 A] Mechanical factors B] Personnel factors

 C] Environmental factors D] All of the above

 Ans. D] All of the above

91. Which of the following is the biggest and serious accident in the history of Indian Industries?

 A] Goa Gas Leakage Tragedy, B] Bhopal Gas Leakage Tragedy,

 C] Assam Gas Leakage Tragedy, D] None of the above.

 Ans. B] Bhopal Gas Leakage Tragedy,

92. Industrial safety management is that branch of management which is concerned with ____

hazards from the industries.

 A] Reducing

 B] Controlling

 C] Eliminating

 D] All of the above

 Ans. D] All of the above

93. Which of the following is the main source of water pollution?

 A] Sewage and domestic wastes B] Industrial effluents

 C] Fertilizers D] All of the above.

 Ans. D] All of the above.

94. The major sources of air pollution are –

 A] Natural sources B] Man made sources

 C] Both A] & B] D] None of the above

 Ans. C] Both A] & B]

95. According to modern ecologists, the factors of environment pollution are –

 A] Human population explosion, B] Rapid industrialization,

 C] Unplanned urbanization, D] All of the above.

 Ans. D] All of the above.

96. The principal type of industries which contribute to water pollution of rivers in India are –

A] Chemicals and pharmaceuticals, B] Coal washeries,

C] Both A] & B], D] None of the above.

Ans. C] Both A] & B],

97. The Environment (protection) Act was passed in the year –

 A] 1987 B] 1988 C] 1986 D] 1990

 Ans. C] 1986

98. Which gas was liberated in Bhopal gas tragedy?

A] Ethyl isothiocyanate, B] Sodium isothiocyanate,

C] Methyl isocyanate, D] None of the above.

Ans. C] Methyl isocyanate

99. Main pollutant of the Indian coastal water is –

 A] Oil spill B] Industrial effluents

 C] Municipal sewage D] Aerosols

 Ans. B] Industrial effluents

100. The Noise Pollution (Regulation and Control) Rules came into force in the year

 A] 1985 B] 1990 C] 1995 D] 2000

 Ans. D] 2000

101. The instrument used to measure the noise is called

 A] Audiometer B] odometer

 C] clap-on-meter D] accelerometer

 Ans. A] Audiometer

102. Noise is:

A] Loud sound B] Sound of high frequency

 C] Unwanted sound D] Constant sound

 Ans. C] Unwanted sound

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